To spanish speakers who are good with writing. plz help?

Question

yea, i tried asking at the "answers spanish" site, but nobody answers cuz they are always on a "coffee break". so here is my question:

mi pregunta es, si las palabras "prohibida" y "prohibía" las dos son clasificadas como graves (llanas), por que "prohibía" tiene tilde, pero "prohibida" no?

Answer 1

no

Answer 2

i'm not positive what you're asking (my brain shut down over summer) but i'll see if i can get this.

there is no tilde, just an accent. and i believe the one with the accent is just a conjugated form of prohibir. imperfect i believe. prohibida/o is an adjective.

sorry if i didn't answer your question, but i hope i helped.