the situation is runners at first and second with two out. The batter hits the ball sharply and it appeared that the ball may have deflected off the pitchers glove and then hit the umpire positioned directly behind the pitcher slight towards third base but in front of second. The ball then caromed into left field providing no play at first.
The umpire immediately called the ball dead, presumably this is in support of the defence so that no runners could score as a result of this umpire interference. It is questionable as to whether this is the correct call given that the ball may have touched the pitcher in which case the ball should have remained live and the offence would then have easily scored by the runner advancing from second to third, given the balls location in left field. But it was the base umpires judgement to call the ball dead, allow the runners to move one base forward (forced) and give the batter first base. The home ump stated that the ball definitely hit the pitcher first. So now what happens? The actual result was to have the batter return to home plate and the runners returned to first and second (so basically it was a redo!). This seems wrong to me and some judgement should have been used in determining that had the ball remained live there was still no play at any base. So I guess the question is if the base ump calls umpire interference and then confers with the home ump and determines that umpire interference was not the right call, do you really return the batter to the plate?
Tags: