Was james the 1st the the rightful heir to elizabeth the 1st throne?

Question

Was james the 1st the the rightful heir to elizabeth the 1st throne?

Answer 1

Yes, she had no children to pass it to and her siblings were dead. This was her cousin's son. The reason she never married was she did not want the throne passing to Spain or France or any other country. http://www.royal.gov.uk/files/pdf/stuart...

http://www.elizabethi.org/us/queenofscot...

Answer 2

Yes

His great grand mother was Henry VIII's oldest sister, wife ofJames IV of Scots

Answer 3

yes, he was

it was intentionally meant to be his mother, however Mary had her killed while she was Queen of England. She believed James' mother was a threat to her. Because his mother was meant to be the heir, the throne was rightfully his.

Answer 4

Queen Elizabeth I of England died childess in 1603 and thus ended the Tudor Dynasty. She named her heir James VI of Scotland who also later became James I of England. His mother was Mary I of Scotland, under the ordinary laws of succession, Mary was next in line to the English throne after her cousin, Queen Elizabeth I, who was childless. In the eyes of many Catholics Elizabeth was illegitimate, making Mary the true heir.

James was the only son of Mary I of Scotland, so in the eyes of the succession law, James was the rightful heir to the English throne as well as the Scotish throne.

Answer 5

What right does anyone have to a throne?

Answer 6

Yes, Elizabeth confirmed this on her death bed.

Answer 7

James the first of England and James the sixth of Scotland was the rightful heir...Yes.