If, as the Watchtower claim, this verse teaches that Christ is *essentially* (rather than *functionally*) inferior to the Father, do they also claim that this teaches that woman is *essentially* (rather than functionally) inferior to man? If not, where is the consistency in their "exegesis"?
Does the *context* of this eleventh chapter of 1 Corinthians indicate that Paul wrote of *functional*, or *ontological* differences?
BTW, before anyone seeks to argue that taking the *functional* view of this scripture, might somehow reduce Christ to being *essentially* on the same level as man & woman (as has been suggested) -
Please - I don't know of any "Trinitarian" or "JW" who, for one minute, would deny that Christ is essentially superior to man.
However, isn't this verse - indeed, the whole passage - about submission *in function*, and therefore, still in harmony with Galatians 3:28, which teaches the *essential* equality of believers in Christ?
Or *do* the Watchtower teach that women are *essentially* inferior?
Your thoughts, please?
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