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we signed this contract one yr ago and we have 2 yrs left to get the mortgage over into our name,it states in the paper that all monies paid on this lease will be deducted from the price of the home.now the owner states that it is suppose to be just rent as paid.and when we get the mortgage switched over then we will still owe her the full price she was asking for.do we have a leg to stand on or will we be liable if there is still money owed on the mortgage when the time comes?we didnt go infront of an attorney to do these papers we bought a contract at staples and had it notorized is this legal and binding.?
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