Were has this verse disappeared to?

Question

Narrated Ibn 'Umar

A Jew and Jewess were brought to the Prophet on a charge of committing an illegal sexual intercourse. The Prophet asked the Jews, "What do you (usually) do with them?" They said, "We blacken their faces and disgrace them." He said, "Bring here the Torah and recite it, if you are truthful." They (fetched it and) came and asked a one-eyed man to recite. He went on reciting till he reached a portion on which he put his hand. The Prophet said, "Lift up your hand!" He lifted his hand upand behold, there appeared the verse of Ar-Rajm (stoning of the adulterers to death). Then he said, "O Muhammad! They should be stoned to death but we conceal this Divine Law among ourselves." Then the Prophet ordered that the two sinners be stoned to death and, and they were stoned to death, and I saw the man protecting the woman from the stones. (See Hadith No. 809, Vol. 8)

the verse of Ar-Rajm (stoning of the adulterers to death).

Were has it gone? Was it abrogated?

Answer 1

To better explain this can you please provide the Arabic for it? That would be helpful to help you understand it.  

Answer 2

Interesting question.  So you know my view on hadeeth but this brings up an interesting dynamic - a hadeeth that indicates abrogation in the Holy Qur'an.  I've studied the science of abrogation in depth and have found that if a verse of the Qur'an had indeed been abrogated, then it would have had a ripple effect.  The Qur'an is such a book that each verse relies on another verse.  Kind of like a pyramid.  You pull out one of the bricks at the bottom, the whole thing comes crashing down.

Therefore, if a verse had indeed been abgrogated in the Qur'an, then other verses should have shown to be contradictory, especially in this regard.  When we study the punishment for adultary in the Qur'an, we do find that it is 100 or 80 lashings depending on the situation.  What we do not find is any indication that punishment is death.

However, that being aside, this Hadeeth has other logical fallacies to it.  For starters, why would the Prophet (sa) need a quranic ayat to justify death for the Jew and the Jewess?  I would like to know when this Hadeeth or event happened.  I highly doubt it is while he was in Mecca as in Mecca, the Prophet (sa) was ridiculed and powerless.  In Medina, however, he was recognized unanimously as the Chief, long before becoming king of Arabia.  Therefore, we narrow down the time that this event occurred between 622 and 632 AD (i.e. when he passed away).

Now, as Chief and subsequently king of Arabia, the Prophet (sa) was approached to arbitrate matters of Islamic fiqh, as well as disputes between people of other faiths.  They accepted him as the arbitrator and did not question his just judgement.  Earlier I asked why the Prophet (sa) would need an excuse from the Qur'an to punish the Jew and Jewess with death for adultary.  To this day the Torah still prescribes death by stoning for adultary.  As the Prophet (sa) was a leader for the Muslims spiritually as well as secularly, he could issue Islamic punishments for Muslims.  However, he could not and would not issue Islamic punishments for those whom were Not Muslim or had not accepted Islam.  This was in accordance with (2:257) that there is no compulsion in religion.

In such a case where two non Muslims, for example Jews, came to him for arbitration, he would ask them what they preferred, Jewish Law or Islamic Law.  If they both agreed to Islamic Law, he would issue the edict from an Islamic perspective per their authority and permission.  If they agreed on Judaic law, he would issue an edict on the Torah, per their request.

Now, this Hadeeth does not indicate if they protested to the Torah being used.  However, that only further indicates that there is a fabrication in this Hadeeth as the Torah already prescribes death for adultary, so why would the Prophet (sa) even need the excuse of a Quranic ayat?

To give you a more pressing example I'm sure you've read of the Jewish tribe of Banu Qurazyh.  This tribe had signed a peace alliance treaty with the Muslims to defend them when Medina was attacked by all of Arabia.  During the treaty this tribe committed Mutiny.  The Muslims were still able to overcome this mutiny and survived the attack.

Now, the battle was over and the Prophet (sa), as Chief of Medina, had not yet issued his verdict.  Before doing so the Jews demanded an arbitrator to be chosen to issue their punishment.  The name of the man escapes me at the moment but indeed, he was a friend of the Jews and selected by the Jews themselves.  The first thing this man did was get assurance from the Prophet (sa), that the Prophet (sa) would not interfere with whatever decision he himself made as the officially accepted arbitrator from both sides.  The Prophet (sa) gave his word.  Hence forth, the man said that as the Jews comitted Mutiny, they must be held accountable for this punishment per their own law.  Their own law states that every man must be put to death for Mutiny, and this will be their punishment.  Therefore, this is the punishment that was metted out, per Judaic Law.  The Prophet (sa) still forgave them for their actions.  When asked why he replied, "I have made an oath to abide by the decision of the unanimously accepted arbritor, but indeed, I will still exercise my right to forgive them" (despite their impending fate).  

So the point is that in regards to people of different faiths, the Prophet (sa) used the law that they themselves ascribed to.  This was to prevent Islam to be compelled upon them in any way and indeed per their own request to have their own law used.

The Qur'an is clear that the punishment for adultary is 100 or 80 lashings depending on the situation.  Should that other verse have existed, there must have been numerous references to it in numerous hadeeth along with a writing of the exact ayat, when it was revealed, whom wrote it down, and what number, etc. as well.  I should assume none of these things are available until or unless someone can provide them.

Sorry for the long answer :)

EDIT:

@Asker - Thanks for the kind words brother.  Glad I could offer some insight.

love for all, hatred for none

Answer 3

all scholars (Sunni:Shia) agree, that this is an unathentic hadith, any hadith that contradicts the Holy Quran is considered false, and discarded

Answer 4

Torah is not in its original form now, the different government of Jews initially used to practice the strict laws on the lower class and for the same guilt they had lenient laws for the upper class.As, the hadith says, they tried to hide the verses related to Ar-Rajm.

When their people protested on this, they made permanent changes to the book and still they keep on changing according to their requirement thats why Torah is not in its original form now.

As the man and the women were Jew, so the Holy Prophet (PBUH) punished them according to their law.

As far as, the punishment of Ar-Rajm in Islam is concerned, in Qur'an it is also mentioned.You can also consult Surah An-Noor, it also discusses punishments for adultery.

Answer 5

can you like translate it in arabic?