As far as I can ascertain, drugs like Buspiron, activate serotonin receptors, mimicking the effect of the neurotransmitter. And, SSRIs increase the extracellular level of the neurotransmitter serotonin by inhibiting its reuptake into the presynaptic cell. So, presumably, the end result of both is an increase in the level of available seretonin.
Perhaps, with SSRI's, the increased level is due to inhibition while with seretonin receptor agonists, it results from activation. Is that correct? Is there some other main difference I'm just not getting, here?
Thanx for any and all help :-) :-).
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