I don't care what suits they are, nor if they are the same or different suits. And I mean I'm playing three hands, nobody else at the table, and of course the dealer gets a hand.
I'm thinking, to start out with, (48/312)(47/311)(46/310)(6/308)(6/307)(6... 26/billion, or about 1 in 40 million.
Here's my problem. The above only works if we *don't* get, say, an ace of diamonds on hand one, card one, and then a jack of diamonds on hand two, card one. Because if we do that, then the that only leaves 5 jacks of diamonds available to complete hand one. And so forth (i.e., what if you get ace of diamonds hand one card one, and then jacks of diamonds for hand two card one *and* hand three card one)
We also have to account for the probability that the dealer gets one of the 48 cards of interest as his/her first card.
Help.
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