Question:

What divides democratic form of government and an Oligarchy?

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The mere idea that certain vested interest gets favourable business contracts after their candidates wins; would this construed that democracy is merely a front, and Oligarchy prevails like what we have in the Philippines?

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  1. There is no such thing as a pure democracy, not even in Switzerland.  We all have a compromise.  In ancient Greece every Athenian citizen could vote, but but 90% of the people were slaves.  In the Roman Republic, the aristocracy elected the senate and the counsils, but finally a council of the plebians was established who had veto power.  Many people in the Roman empire were slaves also.  One of my college professors pointed out that there are two systems in my country (USA).  In one system each citizen has one vote, and each dollar has one vote.


  2. Honestly, looking at the USA and UK I would say nothing.

    It's perfectly possible to have a democracy and an oligarchy at the same time. The USA and UK have free votes for citizens but only from a selected choice of effectively identical policy and acceptable parties. The only difference, if at all, is who greases their wheel, not whether their wheel is greased...

    The idea that vested interests don't get favourable business contracts from the US and UK governments is laughable. For example, the millions of US tax dollars that were literally handed out in crates to private US contractors by weight of cash! for no return in Iraq or the UK Government stepping in to halt Scotland Yard criminal enquiries into Saudi arms deals. High profile examples and so common as to be ignored...

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