Question:

What does "quem amantens fallere possit?" mean? ?

by  |  earlier

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someone asked this boy if he faniced me, and that is what he said.

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  1. Something along the lines of

    It is possible to deceive the loving one

    "amantens" is not a real word-the case ending is wrong, but I'm assuming it's agreeing with "quem". "fallere" is to deceive, and "possit" is a form of "to be able".


  2. lovers can do the wrong thing...

    i've been studying latin at school...

  3. It is wrong citation from Virgil's Aeneid (PUBLI VERGILI MARONIS)

    book 4

    296 quis fallere possit amantem?

    Can anybody deceive a lover?

  4. I think it should be "Quis fallere possit amantem".

    Who can deceive a lover?

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