Question:

What does this Macbeth quote imply?

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When Macbeth is talking about his wife's suicide: "She should have died herafter, there would have been a time for such a word" does it imply that he didn't really care that she died, or that his love for her had lessened?

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  1. He no longer cared about her.


  2. he cared for his wife and felt guilty after he had killed her.

  3. This is a bad quote, but nevertheless, Macbeth and his wife's relationship becomes strained after he becomes mad with power and I think that he anticipated his wife's guilt becoming her downfall because of the "weakness of women".

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