What is 1+1= numbers please help?

Question

please answer the question above in the most complicated way ever

Answer 1

1+1. It is one of the simplest math problems on Earth. However it really depends on what you are adding. For example, if you have one apple in a basket and then you put another apple in the same basket, then you have 2 (two) apples. However it gets trickier. If one of those apples are red and the other is green then even though you have two apples, they are not the same. Therefore you have one red and one green apple. Now lets say you take one red apple and one green apple and you put them in a juicing machine that allows the juice to flow into a glass container. Now one plus one equals one because they are together. The same thing works if you have a puddle of water . Next to it you have another puddle of water. You will witness two puddles of water. But, however if they were connected, they would become one puddle of water. So you see, in theory the simplest answer is 2 but depending on the situation 1+1 could equal 1. The mysterious question can be answered in a non physical ways as well. For example, in some religions and strong beliefs, it is said that when a man and his other becomes married, they become one. Two phisical bodies sharing their experieces and living the rest of their lives as one although physically 1+1=2 unless one of the previous explanations prove otherwise.

Answer 2

2 or Window (1+1=,Just mix it)

Answer 3

1 + 1

= 2

Answer 4

1(=0.50*2=0.25*4)

+

1(=0.50*2=0.25*4)

=

2(=0.50*2+0.50*2=0.25*4+0.25*4)

so inevitably 1+1=2

Answer 5

1+1=

                 1

               +1

               =2

1+1=2

Answer 6

2

Answer 7

This HAS to be the most complicated way EVER.

http://humor.beecy.net/misc/principia/

OR

The proof starts from the Peano Postulates, which define the natural

numbers N. N is the smallest set satisfying these postulates:

  P1.  1 is in N.

  P2.  If x is in N, then its "successor" x' is in N.

  P3.  There is no x such that x' = 1.

  P4.  If x isn't 1, then there is a y in N such that y' = x.

  P5.  If S is a subset of N, 1 is in S, and the implication

       (x in S => x' in S) holds, then S = N.

Then you have to define addition recursively:

  Def: Let a and b be in N. If b = 1, then define a + b = a'

       (using P1 and P2). If b isn't 1, then let c' = b, with c in N

       (using P4), and define a + b = (a + c)'.

Then you have to define 2:

  Def:  2 = 1'

2 is in N by P1, P2, and the definition of 2.

Theorem:  1 + 1 = 2

Proof: Use the first part of the definition of + with a = b = 1.

       Then 1 + 1 = 1' = 2  Q.E.D.

Note: There is an alternate formulation of the Peano Postulates which

replaces 1 with 0 in P1, P3, P4, and P5. Then you have to change the

definition of addition to this:

  Def: Let a and b be in N. If b = 0, then define a + b = a.

       If b isn't 0, then let c' = b, with c in N, and define

       a + b = (a + c)'.

You also have to define 1 = 0', and 2 = 1'. Then the proof of the

Theorem above is a little different:

Proof: Use the second part of the definition of + first:

       1 + 1 = (1 + 0)'

       Now use the first part of the definition of + on the sum in

       parentheses:  1 + 1 = (1)' = 1' = 2  Q.E.D.

Answer 8

Man, you have no idea how many people post this same question everyday...

Answer 9

1+1=1

=

1 by the power of 2

    1

+  1

___

    2

1.0+1.0=2