Whenever a critic or dissident of anything Jewish is perceived to be bigoted or prejudiced, he gets labelled as "anti-semitic". The same does not happen to critics of ARABS, who comprise almost all of the Semitic race. The obvious conclusion (IMO) in the first case would be that the person is "anti-Jewish", yet this seems to have been leap-frogged as a possibilty at some point in the past, and universally adopted as a truth.
My question is: What reasoning was/is used to preclude the possibility that (X) is anti-Jewish, and so therefore MUST be anti-semitic? Is there a reason, or does it just sound better?
Incidentally, my dictionary defines "Semite" as Arabs, Jews, Phoenicians and Assyrians. It defines ANTI-semite as someone who dislikes Jews. There's a glaring mismatch. Also, the term "anti-Jew(ish)" is ABSENT from the same dictionary.
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