Last year we signed an offer to purchase real estate agreement in Indiana. It was my father in-laws house. Then a few days before closing my wife and her dad had a huge fight. Lot’s of name calling, on his part so my wife decided we were not going to buy the house so we walked away. There was only $1.00 of earnest money. However, the Default and Forfeiture statement in the contract says. “If this offer is accepted by the seller and the buyer without legal cause fails and refuses to carry out this agreement, buyer shall forfeit all earnest money and seller shall be entitled to recover its damages incurred as a result of buyer’s breach together with attorney’s fees and costs necessary for the enforcement of this agreement.†Now he says he wants to sue us for breach of contract. So again, my question would be what do they mean by legal cause for breaking the contract? If he never got the survey done, which it states in the agreement, is that legal cause? Is the name calling legal cause?
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