What is the explanation for this in the Non Proliferation Treaty?

Question

This sounds really discriminatory.

The NPT restricts the legal possession of nuclear weapons to those states that tested them before 1967, who alone are free to possess and multiply their nuclear stockpiles. The treaty never explains on what ethical grounds such a distinction is valid. Can anyone provide a valid reason that why is such a clause included in the Nuclear Non Proliferation treaty

Answer 1

Those pre 1967 countries were grandfathered in.  The idea behind the treaty was to stop the spread of nukes.  However if that meant trying to force countries who already had them to give them up, the treaty would never have been signed.

Answer 2

it is discriminatory.. it was also the only way to stop the proliferation of weapons...

did you STUDY the treaty?!?!??! in 1967 the cold war was getting under way... the US and Russia were LITERALLY on the edge of WW III.... without this treaty each of those super powers would have begun giving nukes to their allies all around the world... .. in any continent where they came into conflict.. nuclear weapons would have been given by one power to the weaker side.. then the other side would have had to match..

how many nuclear wars would we have had by now in those circumstances?!?!

the trick with understanding treaties is to actually go back and look at the political climate of the day.. this was the time when "Duck and Cover" were the watch words throughout America.. as the correct actions to take in the event of a Russian nuclear attack!