Question:

What is the reason why we don't use "too" for some statement?

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Example: a dialogue from Star Wars, discussion between Padme and Annakin.

Annakin said: "I don't want to hear any more about Obi-Wan. The Jedi turned against me. Don't you turn against me."

Why didn't he just say:

Annakin said: "I don't want to hear any more about Obi-Wan. The Jedi turned against me. Don't you turn against me too."

Why is there a need to omit the "too" for that statement?

please help. thanks ;)

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5 ANSWERS


  1. It is certainly optional as it may seem, to some, that to insert the word, "too" would be redundant. The reason it would be redundant, is that it was already stated that the Jedi had turned against them. As long as the character stressed the word "you", as in: "The Jedi turned against me. Don't YOU turn against me." The stress on the word helps reinforce that this wasn't the first time... Does this make sense???

    ** BTW, it certainly is not incorrect either way...  it could be written, with or without the "too". Hope this helps !!!


  2. To avoid being confusing and overly wordy words such as this that do not need to be there are often ommitted.  It is best practice to always re-read your writing and see if there are words that do not need to be included for the sentence to be complete.  It eliminates confusion.  When writing literature or other entertainment peices additional words are included to set tone and draw in the reader.

  3. Is the word really redundant? As LDS Lady pointed out there is some important information here that the reader/viewer needs to get and the way its done is by emphasizing the word "you". But if you just read the line you don't have the information because nobody emphasizes the word for you. The word "too" would make things clear and emphasize how much it would hurt Anakin if his lover Padme would turn against him (too).

    In Julius Caesar we have the same situation. Caesar gets stabbed by a lot of senators - including his close friend Brutus. But Shakespeare doesn't just make Caesat say "Tu Brute?" (You Brutus?) but "Et tu Brute" (You too Brutus?). Why is the word not redundant here?

  4. It's redundant.

  5. I think it was just a stylistic choice by the writers - both options are grammatically correct.  The "too" is implied in the first sentence, and explicitly stated in the second.

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