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If blond(e) hair developed between 7000BC and 8000BC, and the Indo-European language family hadn't developed/spread till starting around 4000BC...doesn't that imply that the peoples of northern climes didn't speak Germanic or Slavic or Celtic or w/e language we know today till it was finally spread up to the north by other people? If so, we can't really say the first blond(e) people were "Germanic" or "Slavic"...they were their "own" people first and didn't embrace an Indo-European language till thousands of years afterwards.http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/8th_millennium_BChttp://www.timesonline.co.uk/tol/news/uk/article735078.ecehttp://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Indo-European_Languageshttp://commons.wikimedia.org/wiki/Image:IE5500BP.pnghttp://commons.wikimedia.org/wiki/Image:IE4500BP.pnghttp://commons.wikimedia.org/wiki/Image:IE3500BP.pnghttp://commons.wikimedia.org/wiki/Image:IE2500BP.pnghttp://commons.wikimedia.org/wiki/Image:IE1500BP.png
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