Question:

When playing 8 ball, is it ever allowable to purposely hit your opponents ball instead of your own?

by Guest66367  |  earlier

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When playing 8 ball, is it ever allowable to purposely hit your opponents ball instead of your own?

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  1. Yes, but it is a foul and your opponent gets ball in hand (s/he can place the cue ball anywhere on the table).  However, this can be used as a strategic move to lock up your opponents balls in a cluster or block their access to a pocket.  Use it wisely!


  2. TECHNICALLY YOU CAN BUT YOUR OPPONENT THEN GETS BALL IN HAND

    SINCE HITTING HIS BALL FIRST IS A FOUL

  3. you can but whether you make your ball or not its your opponents turn.

  4. Yes but than your opponent gets ball in hand

  5. Yes, but then they get ball in hand because its a foul.  Anyone who says different does not know what they are talking about.

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