From my understanding, it is short selling shares without borrowing them. From reading the passages in Wikipedia and Investopedia, they say it is shorting shares without the intent of delivering them, therefore making it the fault of the trader.
From my understanding, would it not be the brokerage's fault because they did not make sure the shares could be borrowed from their inventories or sources? Or would it be the fault of the bank or supplier of the borrowed shares for not informing the brokerage that shares could not be borrowed (or otherwise their failure in completing the transaction?
Thanks for your help.
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