Question:

Why 1 means one ,2 means two and so on????what is the logic behind it????

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The numbers we all use (1, 2, 3, 4, etc.) are known as "arabic" numbers to distinguish them from the "Roman Numerals" (I, II, III, IV, V, VI, etc). Actually the arabs popularized these numbers but they were originally used by the early phonecian traders to count and keep track of their trading accounts.

Have you ever thought why ........ 1 means "one", and 2 means "two"? The roman numerals are easy to understand but what was the logic behind the phonecian numbers?

It's all about angles !

It's the number of angles. If one writes the numbers down (see below) on a piece of paper in their older forms, one quickly sees why. I have marked the angles with "o"s.

No 1 has one angle.

No 2 has two angles.

No 3 has three angles. etc.

.....

and "O" has no angles

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6 ANSWERS


  1. It is International convention.


  2. I think 1 and 2 have no angles. 2 may have 0 degree.

  3. WOW!!! i really did not have any idea why is it so!!!!!

    thanks a dozen for the info, contact!

    u know.. i was about to answer it ironically first! :)

    EDIT: hey btw, in 'nine' there are not 9 angles...or are they.. ? :O

  4. a girl means a girl and boy means a boy! so, its the way it is lol

  5. Go, and learn nursery............

               It"s company  flt.

  6. Try again. But first, better learn what an angle is.

    Kabum

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