Question:

Why Do Watches Have IIII Instead of IV?

by Guest55733  |  earlier

0 LIKES UnLike

?

 Tags:

   Report

3 ANSWERS


  1. They used to have 'IV' but then some king had all the clocks in his castle "corrected" to have 'IIII' instead. Out of respect they started making them all like that.


  2. show me, but it might be because a) the moron who designed it doesn't know Roman numerology, or b) s/he thinks the average consumer doesn't know rn

  3. -Louis XIV, king of France, who preferred IIII over IV, ordered his clockmakers to produce clocks with IIII and not IV, and thus it has remained

    -Using the standard numerals, two sets of figures would be similar and therefore confuseable by children and others unused to reading clockfaces

    -The four-character form IIII creates a visual symmetry with the VIII on the other side, which the character IV would not

    -With IIII, the number of symbols on the clock totals twenty I's, four V's, and four X's, so clock makers need only a single mold with a V, five I's, and an X in order to make the correct number of numerals for their clocks: VIIIIIX. This is cast four times for each clock and the twelve required numerals are separated:

    V IIII IX

    VI II IIX

    VII III X

    VIII I IX

    The IIX and one of the IX’s are rotated 180° to form XI and XII. The alternative with IV uses seventeen I's, five V's, and four X's, requiring the clock maker to have several different molds.

    -Only the I symbol would be seen in the first four hours of the clock, the V symbol would only appear in the next four hours, and the X symbol only in the last four hours. This would add to the clock's radial symmetry.

Question Stats

Latest activity: earlier.
This question has 3 answers.

BECOME A GUIDE

Share your knowledge and help people by answering questions.
Unanswered Questions