and when did the different spelling originate?
if we consider the Quebec French versus the mainland French- both speak unique dialects of the one language.
Yet the spelling of French, among many others remains standard- otherwise it would not be understood
Considering American English is one of many sub-sets of British English and that many US published works prior to circa 1900's used identical spelling- why the seemingly arbitrary change?
Without changing spelling, American English is would remain uniquely American as word choice, new words and such are all different and recognisably American- like footpath versus sidewalk...
Don't you think it's a little arbitrary, pointless and silly?
Tags: