Why does the Quran not mention the name of Jesus as if Allah has left it up to us to discover the truth?

Question

Islam alone holds the truth about the Messiah and does not mix this holy man with the Zeus of Greek mythology at all.

Do you have to be a Muslim to really understand the Christ and the fact that the Bible agrees with the Quran that he was not crucified and that Jesus was actually the name that was applied to two crucified thieves?

Answer 1

His name was not Jesus, There is no J in his name and the S also. His name was YEHSHU in HEBREW and in Aramaic his mother toungue it was EESHAW pronouced in arabic EESA.

The word Gospel also not aramaic, The aramaic word is INJEEL and in Arabic also same.

The injeel as jesuspreached is not available.only gospels saying according to somebody. not only injeel but some history.

Answer 2

Jesus is mentioned so many times in the Quran.  The truth is he did not die on the cross.  But he also did not ascend to heaven.  The Qur'an is very clear that he died like a regular prophet later on.  

Just a thought.

Answer 3

His name as 'Isa", is mentioned in the Quran.

Have you ever read the Quran?!

Answer 4

His name is mentioned as Isa 48 times  

Answer 5

At least jesus did not sleep with little girls like Mr. mohommad did

Edmond D,

Did you know that in order to be a religious person you dont need a brain?

lol

Answer 6

His name was 'Isa in Arabic, the language of the Qur'an. He's mentioned more times directly/by-name (keyword) than Muhammad (peace be upon him) in the Qur'an.  

Answer 7

Jesus is  ÃƒÂ˜Ã‚¹Ã™ÂŠÃ˜Â³Ã™Â‰Ã¢Â€ÂŽ `Īsā in Arabic.

The Anglicized name of Jesus is derived from the Latin Iēsus, which in turn comes from the Greek Ἰησοῦς (Iēsoûs).

The Qur'anic reference as 'Isa has puzzled Western scholars and several theories have been proposed.

One theory is that "y-sh-' , the Hebrew consonants of Yeshua, have been reversed to give 's-y, the Arabic consonants of `Īsā.

Another theory, according to the Encyclopedia of the Qur'an, is that "the Jews called Jesus "Esau" (Hebrew 'Esaw) out of hatred and that Muhammad learned this name from them not realizing that it was an insult.

In support of this is the argument that the Arabic Esau is written as 'Isu, and that this may have been assimilated to `Īsā.

Opposing this theory is the lack of evidence that the Jews ever called Jesus Esau.

Further, a passage in the Qur'an charges Jews for insulting Jesus' mother [Qur'an 4:156] and that those Christians who were acquaintances of Muhammad would have corrected him had Muhammad not realized that it is a Jewish insult to Jesus.

A third theory is that the Qur'an deliberately used the word `Īsā to assimilate it to Musa (Moses) because they were sometimes paired. This also occurs in some modern languages, such as Slovak (Ježiš - Mojžiš) or Czech (Ježíš - Mojžíš). Other examples of assonant pairs include Ṭālūt-Ḏj̲ālūt (Saul and Goliath), Yād̲j̲ūdj-Mād̲j̲ūd̲j̲ (Gog and Magog), and so on.

The last theory is that Christians in Arabia had coined the term `Īsā from the Syriac forms of Yeshu or Ishu. The Arabic words that are borrowed from Aramaic or Syriac are often employed by 'ayn . Furthermore, the Manichaean fragments provide an evidence for dropping the final 'ayin of the borrowed Hebrew terms. But there is no evidence that the term `Īsā had been in use in pre-Islamic times. "There is however a monastery in Syria known as `Īsāniyya as early as 571 C.E."

The Qur'an states that Jesus[Isa] is the Messiah[Christ] which means the Anointed (One).The Anglicized name of Christ derived from Greek " Christos/khristos .

Answer 8

The Islamic Isa is not the Christ and could not be the Christ.

In order for a man to be the Christ he has to fulfill the prophesies of the Messiah. Muslims do not even believe in the words of the prophets nor the words of Christ.

Where in the Qu'ran do  you find the prophesies that Jesus fulfilled?

What did Jesus say about the Torah and the Gospel?

John 5:38 And ye have not his word abiding in you: for whom he hath sent, him ye abelieve not.

  39 Search the scriptures; for in them ye think ye have eternal life: and they are they which testify of me.

  40 And ye will not come to me, that ye might have life.

  41 I receive not honour from men.

  42 But I know you, that ye have not the love of God in you.

  43 I am come in my Father’s name, and ye receive me not: if another shall come in his own name, him ye will receive.

  44 How can ye believe, which receive honour one of another, and seek not the honour that cometh from God only?

  45 Do not think that I will accuse you to the Father: there is one that accuseth you, even Moses, in whom ye trust.

  46 For had ye believed Moses, ye would have believed me: for he wrote of me.

  47 But if ye believe not his writings, how shall ye believe my words?

Jesus says if you don't believe Moses (Torah) How are you going to believe him? How are you going to believe his words (Gospel)

Answer 9

jesus is mentioned in the quran, but its in arabic 'Isa, my son is named 'Isa meaning jesus, but for sure he is mentioned in the quran and in the hadeeth by prophet mohammed (pbuh).

Answer 10

u ask this Q just for bashing Islam

but to clear ur ignorance ,Jesus (Issa) is mentioned in QURAN many times by name (Issa) or by agnomen ( son of Mary)

Answer 11

Jesus was never crucified according to the Gospel of Barnabas:

The following is an email I received from an anonymous Muslim brother; may Allah Almighty always be pleased with him.

From: Anonymous

To: Osama Abdallah

Subject: THE TRUTH ABOUT JESUS, JUDAS, AND THE CROSS!!!! POST THIS!!!!

Date: Wed, 19 Jun 2002 15:57:31 -0400

Peace be upon you,

I would like you to add this to your site. Update your article "Did Jesus die on the cross?" The answer to this question is written quite clear in the Gospel of Barnabas. It's quite amazing. Maybe you didn't read this yourself, but you must now. The truth of the matter is this - Judas betrayed Jesus. He was a traitor to Jesus, and he was a traitor to Allah.

Even though Judas knew full well that Jesus was a prophet of God, still, he conspired to kill him. Allah punishes severely those that betray him. Allah punished him by making him look like Jesus. The Romans and Jews, who had long since been conspiring to kill Jesus, killed Judas, who looked like Jesus. This theory is supported by parts of the Bible itself. In the Bible, Jesus says "God, why have you forsaken me?" Jesus would never have said this if he was the son of God coming down to die for everybody's sin, as Christians believe. No, it was Judas who asked this question. Also, in the Bible the person on the cross called Mary "Women!" when he sees her. Obviously, this was not Jesus, because Jesus would never call his mother such a disrespectful name. No, instead, this person was Judas. This is written in much more clear detail in the Gospel of Barnabas. Please read the following chapters and make this known on your site-

214: Judas Betrays

215: Divine Rescue of Jesus

216: Judas Transformed

217: Judas Scourged and Mocked

218: Judas Crucified

219: Jesus appeareth to his Friends

220: Jesus and the Four Angels

221: Jesus Chargeth Barnabas to Write

222: Jesus Carried Up to Heaven

You can read all these chapters here:

http://www.barnabas.net/chapter_index.ht...

These chapters are really quite amazing. Jesus speaks to God about the future corruption of his Gospel. The Bible claims that Judas died in battle. But how can we trust the Bible? We simply can't. If there is one Gospel that is truth worthy, it's the Gospel of Barnabas. I don't think this should be an issue of confusion anymore. Jesus was never put up on the cross, and he never died. And exactly as it states in the Quran, it was made to appear so. According to the Quran, Jesus was not put on the cross. It says "but they killed him not, nor crucified him". I don't think crucifixion could mean dying on the cross, because right before that Allah said "they killed him not". Jesus being put on the cross is not backed by the Quran, because Jesus asked Allah to save him (because he knew people were planning to kill him), and since Allah loves Jesus, he did.

[an-Nisa' 4:157] That they said (in boast), "We killed Christ Jesus the son of Mary, the Apostle of God";- but they killed him not, nor crucified him, but so it was made to appear to them, and those who differ therein are full of doubts, with no (certain) knowledge, but only conjecture to follow, for of a surety they killed him not:-

[an-Nisa' 4:158] Nay, God raised him up unto Himself; and God is Exalted in Power, Wise;-

Here is a quote from this site-

http://www.geocities.com/Athens/Agora/42...

"When Abraham was told by God to sacrifice his son, his son did not object or question him, if Jesus was sent to be sacrificed for our sins, why would he question God?

(Matthew 27:46): ".. . My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?"

Could this not come from someone other than Jesus? Even a Non Prophet would smile at agony as he knew that his death would win him the title of martyr.

Was this not an insult to Jesus in not having faith in Allah?"

I understand that other theories are possible. But until the Gospel of Barnabas is proven to be false, then I think this theory is the correct one. I would like your input on this issue after you read the chapters I listed above. Please post this on your site so everybody will know about this.

Thanks and peace be with you,

Anonymous



and for sara with loveGirls at the age of 3 were forced into s*x in both the Talmud and the Bible.  Also, the age consent in US and Europe was as low as 10:

The sections of this article are:

1-  Pedophilia and killing of "suckling infants" in the Bible!

2-  Girls at the age of 3 were forced into s*x and marriage in both the Talmud and the Bible.

3-  Age consent in our world today only 100 years ago to girls as young as 10.

4-  Rebuttals.  See my rebuttal to Sam Shamoun's response.



1-  Pedophilia and killing "suckling infants" in the Bible!

Ironically, one of the Bible's 10 pillars or ten Commandments says: "Thou shalt not kill.  (Exodus 20:13)."  Yet, innocent children and non-virgin women were ordered to be killed by the mass, perhaps in thousands!   3-year old slave girls were also ordered to be raped by Moses.  



This section is divided into 2 sub-sections:

1-  Kill everything that breathes!

2-  Suckling infants were executed by the tens of thousands!

3-  The pedophilic verses against 3-year old girls.





1-  Kill everything that "breathes" from humans and animals!

Deuteronomy 20:16

However, in the cities of the nations the Lord your God is giving you as an inheritance, do not leave alive anything that breathes.

It is certainly the Bible's principle and foundation to kill all humans and animals from the enemy's side.  If one wouldn't call that terrorism, war crimes and mass-murdering, then what else should they call it?



2-  Suckling infants were executed by the tens of thousands:

1 Samuel 15:2-4

2 Thus saith the LORD of hosts, I remember that which Amalek did to Israel, how he laid wait for him in the way, when he came up from Egypt.

3 Now go and smite Amalek, and utterly destroy all that they have, and spare them not; but slay both man and woman, infant and suckling, ox and sheep, camel and ***.

4 And Saul gathered the people together, and numbered them in Telaim, two hundred thousand footmen, and ten thousand men of Judah.

A praise for dashing little children against rocks as a form of revenge:

Psalm 137:8-9

8 O daughter of Babylon, O destroyed one, O the happiness of him who repayeth to thee thy deed, That thou hast done to us.

9 O the happiness of him who doth seize, And hath dashed thy sucklings on the rock!

I find it to be absolutely ridiculous that the bible feeds us all kinds of lies and contradictions about "love your enemy", and yet, we see mass slaughter of suckling infants and innocent boys, girls, unarmed men, women (old and young), and innocent domestic farm animals by the tens of thousands!  It is clear that the inconsistent man-altered, man-corrupted and morally corrupt bible is nothing but a false book, and can not be a Divine and Perfect Holy Book!

I challenge any Jew or Christian to produce ONE, JUST ONE Noble Verse from the Muslims' Noble Quran that condones killing of innocent children, women or even hostile enemy men who drop their weapons before Muslims (surrender).  

See the Rights of Prisoners of War in Islam.  

Further more, Allah Almighty Said in the Noble Quran:

"On that account: We ordained for the Children of Israel that if any one slew a person - unless it be for murder or for spreading mischief in the land - it would be as if he slew the whole people: and if any one saved a life, it would be as if he saved the life of the whole people. Then although there came to them Our apostles with clear signs, yet, even after that, many of them continued to commit excesses in the land.  (The Noble Quran, 5:32)"

Yet, we see mass slaughters and even rape of 3-year old girls as seen in the verses below in the man-altered, man-fabricated and man-corrupted bible.

Based on this Noble Verse, I can safely conclude, as a Muslim, that the slaughtering stories of innocent people in the corrupted bible were nothing but man-made lies and laws that were put in the Mouth of Allah Almighty:

"Know they not Allah Knoweth what they conceal and what they reveal? And there are among them illiterates, who know not the Book (i.e., the Bible), but (see therein their own) desires, and they do nothing but conjecture.  Then woe to those who write the Book with their own hands, and then say: 'This is from Allah,' To traffic with it for a miserable price! Woe to them for what their hands do write, and for the gain they make thereby.   (The Noble Quran, 2:77-79)"



3-  The Pedophilic Verses against 3-year old girls:

The pedophilic Biblical verses are Numbers 31:17-18 and Numbers 31:35-40.  Below, you will see DETAILED HISTORY on these SPECIFIC verses from the Jewish Talmud explaining the pedophilia that took place against the 3-year old slave girls under the direct command of Moses.

While Christians are not obligated to follow the laws of the Talmud in their social lives, but the historical FACTS that exist in the Talmud about the Biblical verses Numbers 31:17-18 and Numbers 31:35-40 below, and how the "BIBLE FOLLOWERS" during those days were mostly pedophiles who literally forced s*x on 3-year old girls after Moses' supposed 'Divine' order is clear indication that the Bible condones pedophilia.

Christians are not the only "Bible Followers".   Jews are too!

You also need to keep in mind that Christians are not the only "Bible followers".  Jews are too, and what ever they did counts for and against the Bible.

So while the pedophilic mentioned verses don't exactly specify the 3 years old minimum age limit, but they most certainly don't condemn it, and according to the Talmud's detailed elaborations on the verses, as shown below, and what actually took place during their events, the verses actually allowed it, AS MOSES HIMSELF ALLOWED IT!  

Moses' Commands for pedophilia against 3-year old slave girls do count against the Bible!

As shown in the quotes below:

"....The Tannaïtic Midrash Sifre to Numbers in §157 comments on the above quoted commandment of MOSES to kill the Midianite women as well as the male children...."

"....According to the Tannaïte Rabbis, MOSES therefore had ordered the Israelites to kill all women older than three years and a day, because they were "suitable for having sexual relations." [138]...."

"Said Rabbi Joseph, "Come and take note: A girl three years and one day old is betrothed by intercourse....."

"A girl three years and one day old is betrothed by intercourse. "A girl three years old may be betrothed through an act of sexual intercourse," the words of R. Meir. And sages say, "Three years and one day old."....."

The detailed quotes, elaborations and bibliography are in the next section below.





2-  Girls at the age of 3 were forced into s*x in both the Talmud and the Bible:



The Quotes and Proofs for Pedophilia Please pay attention to the bolded and underlined parts below:

The following was taken from http://www.infidels.org/library/modern/g... regarding Numbers 31:17-18 in the Bible:

"They fought against Midian, as the LORD commanded Moses, and killed every man........Now kill all the boys [innocent kids]. And kill every woman who has slept with a man, but save for yourselves every girl who has never slept with a man.  (Numbers 31:7,17-18)"

Children

Sometimes one has to read a passage twice to believe what has been written in the Sacred Books of Judaism: what has been decreed the way to a holy life by the "sages of blessed memory... whose words are the natural sounds of Judaism" [131]:



Said Rabbi Joseph, "Come and take note: A girl three years and one day old is betrothed by intercourse. And if a Levir has had intercourse with her, he has acquired her. And one can be liable on her account because of the law prohibiting intercourse with a married woman. And she imparts uncleanness to him who has intercourse with her when she is menstruating, to convey uncleanness to the lower as to the upper layer [of what lies beneath]. If she was married to a priest, she may eat food in the status of priestly rations. If one of those who are unfit for marriage with her had intercourse with her, he has rendered her unfit to marry into the priesthood. If any of those who are forbidden in the Torah to have intercourse with her had intercourse with her, he is put to death on her account, but she is free of responsibility [M.Nid. 5:4].

Sanhedrin 7/55B [132]

R. Nahman bar Isaac said. "They made the decree that a gentile child should be deemed unclean with the flux uncleanness [described at Lev.15], so that an Israelite child should not hang around with him and commit pederasty [as he does]."

For said R. Zira, "I had much anguish with R. Assi, and R. Assi with R. Yohanan, and R. Yohanan with R. Yannai, and R. Yannai with R. Nathan b. Amram, and R. Nathan b. Amram with Rabbi [on this matter]: 'From what age is a gentile child deemed unclean with the flux uncleanness [described at Lev.15]'? And he said to me, 'On the day on which he is born.' But when I came to R. Hiyya, he said to me, 'From the age of nine years and one day.' And when I came and laid the matter before Rabbi, he said to me, 'Discard my reply and adopt that of R. Hiyya, who declared, "From what age is a gentile child deemed unclean with the flux uncleanness [described at Lev.15]? From the age of nine years and one day."'

[37A] Since he is then suitable for having sexual relations, he also is deemed unclean with the flux uncleanness [of Lev.15]."

Said Rabina, "Therefore a gentile girl who is three years and one day old, since she is then suitable to have sexual relations, also imparts uncleanness of the flux variety."

That is self-evident!

Abodah Zarah 36B-37A [133]



The basis for these rulings is the following Mishnaic passage of Tractate Niddah (filth):



A girl three years and one day old is betrothed by intercourse. "A girl three years old may be betrothed through an act of sexual intercourse," the words of R. Meir. And sages say, "Three years and one day old."

And if a Levir has had intercourse with her, he has acquired her. And they are liable on her account because of the law prohibiting intercourse with a married woman. And she imparts uncleanness to him who has intercourse with her when she is menstruating to convey uncleanness to the lower as to the upper layer. If she was married to a priest, she eats heave offering. If one of those who are unfit for marriage has intercourse with her, he has rendered her unfit to marry into the priesthood. If one of all those who are forbidden in the Torah to have intercourse with her did so, they are put to death on her account. But she is free of responsibility.

If she is younger than that age, intercourse with her is like putting a finger in the eye.

(Mishnah Niddah 5:4) [134]



Thus, one "of the many important issues worked out in the Mishnah concerns proper conduct with women," [135] and the "entire society of Judaism – that is, the community formed by the Torah – found in the Talmud those modes of thought and inquiry, those media of order and value, that guided the formation of public affairs and private life as well." [136]

While it is reassuring to see there was at least some limit as to what the sages would declare holy and moral, this ruling had severe implications on the interpretation of other topics as well. The Tannaïtic Midrash Sifre to Numbers in §157 comments on the above quoted commandment of Moses to kill the Midianite women as well as the male children:



"Now therefore, kill every male among the little ones, and kill every woman that has known a man by sleeping with him.(Num 31:17).

[This] refers to her who has slept with a man as well as her who is suitable for intercourse, even when she has not slept with a man...

But all the young girls who have not known a man by sleeping with him, keep alive for yourselves. From here R. Shimon b. Yohai used to say: a Proselyte girl who became a proselyte in the age of less than three years and one day, is rendered fit to marry into the priesthood." [137]



According to the Tannaïte Rabbis, Moses therefore had ordered the Israelites to kill all women older than three years and a day, because they were "suitable for having sexual relations." [138]

--------------------------------------...

Bibliography:

[131] Ibid., vol.XXI.A-D, Tractate Bava Mesia, Atlanta: Scholars Press 1990, p.ix-x.

[132] Ibid., vol.XXIII.B, Tractate Sanhedrin 1984, 150. See also vol.XIX.A, Tractate Qiddushin 10a-b, 1992, 33. "Menstruating" here of course refers to the ritual "flux uncleanness" described in Lev.15.

[133] Ibid., vol.XXV.A, Tractate Abodah Zarah, 1991, 168. Emphasis original.

[134] J. Neusner, The Talmud of Babylonia. A complete outline, Part IV. The Division of Holy Things. B. Number 37. 1995, 704.

[135] Neusner 1993, 41.

[136] Neusner 1995, 7.

[137] Kuhn 1959, §157, 652f. My translation. In general, proselytes are not allowed to marry into the priesthood.

[138] Ibid., §157, footnote 86, 653.





The following was sent to me by brother Johnny Bravo; may Allah Almighty always be pleased with him:

Numbers 31:17-18 "Now kill all the boys [innocent kids]. And kill every woman who has slept with a man, but save for yourselves every girl who has never slept with a man."

In the Torah (In the Book of Numbers in the Bible), after the conquest of Midian and Moab, and the great venereal plague, Moses (peace be on him) ordered that all the women "who have known a man" be killed but that "all the young girls, who have not known a man by lying with him" be kept alive for the Israelites.

Since the only females left fit for marriage and wholesome relations were prepubescent virgins, a Jewish law concerning child marriage was enacted. That law is found in the Babylonian Talmud:

"Rabbi Joseph said, 'Come and hear. A maiden aged 3 years and a day may be acquired in marriage by coition.'

Mishnah: A girl of the age of 3 years and a day may be betrothed, subject to her father's approval, by sexual intercourse.

Gemara: Our Rabbis taught: 'A girl of the age of 3 years may be betrothed by sexual intercourse.' "



Is the GOD of Israel a pedophile? Quick side Note:

Numbers 31:35-40 "[From the captives of war] 32,000 women who had never slept with a man.......of which the tribute for the LORD was 32 [among them were virgin girls]."

Even though GOD Almighty's share of the 32 virgin girls is metaphoric, meaning that He didn't come down and have s*x with them, but if any wants to call Prophet Muhammad a pedophile or womanizer for marrying (not forcing into s*x) a young girl and marrying multiple women throughout his life, then he should not only call his Biblical Prophets as such, but also the GOD of Israel Himself!





Anyway continuing with the above Talmudic quotes, today, the Jewish law for marriage, sets the age of consent for females at 11.  (Consent is only one way of marriage) I do not know if modern Jewish law still allows (in theory) betrothal by intercourse as it was practiced in ancient times.

Thirty years ago, the renowned sexologist R.E.L. Masters and Allan Edwardes said in their study of Afro-Asian sexual expression (_The Cradle of Erotica_, Julian Press, New York:1962) said, "Today, in many parts of North Africa, Arabia, and India, girls are wedded and bedded between the ages of five and nine; and no self-respecting female remains unmarried beyond the age of puberty."

I emailed a friend of mine, a former Jew who speaks Hebrew, and he further gave me more information regarding the Jewish view to marriage:

"I have just called up a seriously orthodox friend, a dealer in manuscripts with whom I do business, and a good fellow, to double check my response, and we are in perfect agreement. He runs a strictly orthodox and observant home and life, dresses in black, etc...I checked with him about it, as my own copy of the Code of Jewish Law is the shortened version, known as the "Kitzur Shulchan Aruch". The full book is the "Shulchan Aruch", which means "The Well-Set Table" (The Jews have a talent for clever book-titles).

This is the reference of brother Johnny Bravo's Talmudic quotes.





A girl must be 12 years old for marriage, but a 3-year old may be betrothed with the father's approval. As for the permissibility of marriage to a minor (katanah) by coition...*Fuggedaboudit!!* as they say in the Mafia. My friend assures me that *humanitarian treatment* is the final authority. If a man did that, that is, had intercourse with a minor for purposes of marriage,it would be considered a crime, even if the father approved. A girl that young would be considered unable to make a momentous decision like that. And even if she were older than 12, if it were done by force, as if she were a Moabite captive, they would be made to divorce once the circumstances were known.

Furthermore, and very importantly, the Jews are *required* to observe the "deen hammalchut"...the laws of the country in which they reside, before applying their own halacha, or laws. So the short answer is, yes, marriage by coition is considered legal, but not with a katanah, and never by force. Betrothal to a katanah is OK, but the bride must reach puberty before actual marriage and consummation. Also, according to my own exceedingly imperfect knowledge, nowhere in the Talmud is betrothal to a minor by intercourse *recommended*. If all this were permissible in the days of the Mishna, well, those days are gone."





3-  Age consent in our world today only 100 years ago to girls as young as 10:

The following was sent to me by brother Johnny Bravo; may Allah Almighty always be pleased with him:

Assalam Alaiqum Brother Osama.

I thought you might find the following information of some use pertaining to the marriage of Hazrat Ayesha (RAA) with Prophet Muhammed (PBUH). I took this info from the soc.religion.islam newsgroup and it is written by various knowledgeable Muslims informing that the age of consent in the USA was 10 hardly 100 years ago and 11 in the UK, Talmud allowing 3 year olds to get married! etc. :-

"(And there is evidence that Ayesha was substantially older. That some of our ancient scholars preferred the younger age shows, in fact, that they did not consider marriage at that age to be reprehensible, otherwise they would have preferred the evidence for a later marriage and consummation.)

At the time the marriage was arranged, Muhammad had not left Makka; he was not the leader of a powerful community; indeed, his life was in danger. I raise this point because it is asserted, sometimes, that, essentially, he could have whatever he wanted. Rather, if this marriage had been an outrage to the community, it would have been *very* harmful to his cause."

Above comments by Abdulrahman Lomax.

The age of sexual consent is still quite low in many places. In Japan, people can legally have s*x at age 13, and in Spain they can legally have s*x at age 12.  (This data comes from the Age of Consent chart, which you can see at: http://www.ageofconsent.com/ageofconsent...

The Prophet's contemporaries (both enemies and friends) clearly accepted the Prophet's marriage to `Aisha without any problem. We see the evidence for this by the lack of criticism against the marriage until modern times. However, a change in culture caused the change in our times today.

A 40-year-old man having s*x with a 14-year-old woman may be a "pedophile" in the USA today, but not in China today (where the age of consent is 14), nor in the USA last century. Biology is a much better standard by which to determine these things in my view, not the arbitrariness of human culture.

***** In the USA last century, the age of consent was 10 years old. California was the first state to change the age of consent to 14, which it did in 1889. After California, other US states joined in and raised the age of consent too.  (Source: http://www.ageofconsent.com/comments/num...

As for the reasons why we age of consent just seems to get higher and higher, Essentially, we need more education just to survive in today's society, and this takes much more time. This additional education we need to function in today's society seems to me to be the main cause of the increase in the age of consent in many 20th century societies.  The Common Law age of consent was 10. The French penal code raised the age from 11 to 13 only a century ago.  In England, it was only in 1929 (70 years ago) that the ancient Christian minimum age for the marriage of females, which was 12, was abandoned. The early rock and roll singer Jerry Lee Lewis was considerably older than his 13 cousin whom he married in all legality in Arkansas. Since then, the age there has been raised to 16.  That marriage lasted for about 15 years and there was never any other "scandal" associated with Jerry Lee Lewis. The story is quite different, however, for his cousin Jimmy Swaggart (the well-known and disgraced tele-evangelist) who married a woman his own age but later publicly confessed that he was an adulterer and a whoremonger.

In the seventh century, 3 year old girls were burned to death or tortured in Europe for copulating with demons, witches and sorcerers. Strong sexual passions were attributed to the youngest children.  Even Jean Bodin, one of the greatest legal authorities of his time, said that the appropriate age of consent for a female was 6. (I do not mean to suggest that 3 year olds did in fact have sexual relations with demons. It is however interesting to see that at that time it was publicly believed that child-adult relations were the fault of seductive children who sought out mature men rather than today's popular belief that it is instead pedophiliac adults who prey on innocent, unsuspecting children.)

In the US (an example of a prominent western country, since the west had the greatest effect on the world in the last couple of centuries.) They considered a seven year old female competent on making decisions regarding s*x, though it was raised later on (in 1886, after attempts to raise the age of consent, Delaware was the only state to retain the common law age of seven, while twenty five states set the minimum age at a mere ten.) In older times, children were not perceived in the same sense that we perceive them, but the perception was changed gradually, which is due to a great extent to industrialization, and of course sigmund freud and others came along with their theories and supported these changes in social thinking (the word adolescent itself was introduced as recently as 1904.)

Answer 12

Salam for you my friend. Qur'an does notmention the name of Jesus because Allah called him Isa the son of Maryam. In 3:35,37 Jibril angel informed the wife of Imran prophet that she will get pregnant for a daughter who will dedicate her life to Allah. In 3:42,43  and 19:16,21 Allah through Jibril informed Maryam  that she will get pregnant  although she was not touched by a man.(66:12) In 3:45,48 Jibril  informed Maryam will give birth a son named Al Masih the son of Maryam  In 21:91 Allah spoke that the birth of Isa and the sacred maryam was the evidence of Allah's authority.Isa was the prophet for Bani Israel tribe (43:59,63) In 4:156 Allah spoke that Isa was not killed and was not crucified .In 4:159 and 3 :58 Allah spoke that the killed person just a man whose appearance like Isa.