Why do people who do this sort of thing assume that by insulting others in attempts to intimidate people into accepting history revisionism and corrupted cherry picking out of context to even distort his/her own sources, that it will somehow make the existence of Israel illegitimate and obliterate 4000 years of Jewish history??
The text the asker spoke about from 1912 is so obscure search engines do not find it, However common sense dictates the title refers to the region then known as Palestine at the time of the writing of the book in the year 1912 and the history of that land but is not speaking about the modern Arab Palestinians when speaking of the ancient Philistines.
How can any honest person respect someone who attempts to distort history? Your thoughts please regarding the distortions vs the real history as follows:
It makes perfect sense that a GREEK Historian writing during a period of Greek rule of Judea would refer to the area by the name of his ancient Aegean seafarer ancestors, the Philistines. The Philistines occupied the five cities of Gaza, Ashkelon, Ashdod, Ekron, and Gath, along the coastal strip of southwestern Canaan, south of the kingdom of Israel.
"The term 'Palestine' is derived from the Philistines. In the fifth century BC the Greek historian Herodotus seems to have used the term Palaistine Syria (= Philistine Syria) to refer to the whole region between Phoenicia and the Lebanon mountains in the north and Egypt in the south. (While the exact meaning intended by Herodotus is debated, later Greek writers certainly used 'Philistine Syria' in this very broad sense.) The Greeks felt a great kinship to their ancient kin, the Philistines. Greece was their original homeland!
"The term 'Palestine' is derived from the Philistines. In the fifth century BC the Greek historian Herodotus seems to have used the term Palaistine Syria (= Philistine Syria) to refer to the whole region between Phoenicia and the Lebanon mountains in the north and Egypt in the south. (While the exact meaning intended by Herodotus is debated, later Greek writers certainly used 'Philistine Syria' in this very broad sense.) The Greeks felt a great kinship to their ancient kin, the Philistines. Greece was their original homeland!
The Philistines lost their independence to Tiglath-Pileser III of Assyria by 732 BCE, and revolts in following years were all crushed. Later, Nebuchadrezzar II of Babylon eventually conquered all of Syria and the Kingdom of Judah, and the former Philistine cities became part of the Neo-Babylonian Empire. There are few references to the Philistines after this time period. However, Ezekiel 25:16, Zechariah 9:6, and I Macabees 3 make mention of the Philistines, indicating that they still existed as a people in some capacity after the Babylonian invasion. Eventually all traces of the Philistines as a people or ethnic group disappear. This all happened long before Herodotus wrote his history. Subsequently the cities were under the control of Persians, Jews (Hasmonean Kingdom), Greeks (Seleucid Empire), Romans, and subsequent empires.
The Seleucid Empire (312 - 60 BCE) was a Hellenistic successor state of Alexander the Great's dominion. It was during the GREEK rule that Herodotus lived and wrote.
During the second century BCE, under the Hasmonean priest-kings, the name of the tribe of Judah became applied to a very wide region, and when the Romans took control of that territory in 63 BC they called it Provincia Judaea.
However, in AD 135, after putting down the second major Jewish revolt against Rome, the Emperor Hadrian wanted to blot out the name of Judea and the presence of the Jews so he changed it to Provincia Syria Palaestina (ie the Latin version of the Greek term). This was later shortened to Palaestina, from which the modern 'Palestine' is derived.
According to noted historian, Thomas McCall, the name "Palestine" was not used until the early second century CE. The Romans continued the use of Judea and called the northern regions Galilee. McCall wrote: "When Titus destroyed Jerusalem in 70 A.D., the Roman government struck a coin with the phrase 'Judea Capta,' meaning Judea has been captured. The term Palestine was never used in the early Roman designations." After Bar Kochba's unsuccessful second Jewish revolt against Rome in 135 CE, Emperor Hadrian ordered that all Jews be exiled from the Holy Land. "He took the name of the ancient enemies of Israel, the Philistines, Latinized it to Palestine, and applied it to the Land of Israel. He hoped to erase the name Israel from all memory."
The name of the Philistines, a people that had historically been continually warring against the Jewish kingdoms, was chosen by Hadrian for the very purpose of insulting the Jews.
There is an arch in Rome showing their capture of the Jewish kingdom and sacking the Temple . I suppose the arch of Titus and the coins along with museums full of archaeological evidence of Jewish kingdom
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