Question:

Why is it that historians generally refer to "GNP" was we would refer to "GDP" now a days?

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An example would be say 'this saw a rise in GNP after the great depression'. Well, are GNP and GDP the same thing, are they different or is one just an archaic version of the other? we generally refer to it as 'GDP'.

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  1. In those times, the nationals of of one country were usually confined to that one country, unlike now.  


  2. Historicity only a small part of the US economy was due to trade   and we did not have a trade deficit, so GDP and GNP were nearly the same, so contemporary writer   talked about GNP. Historians  get their information  from old document,and use the same  terminology that was used in them.

  3. GNP (Gross National Product)    GDP(Gross Domestic Product)

    Ok... GDP is defined as the total value of production of all FINAL goods and services in an economy in a year. When you are talking about GDP, it will be always a positive figure due the effect of inflation as economy goes. SO, in nowadays, when we say that there is a growth in GDP, the GDP is adjusted for inflation, meaning that it could be negative figure and therefore called REAL GDP. btw, two concecutive quarters negative growth is called a recession bad stuff

    Here is the concept of GNP, ok ok, let have a real life example here.

    I am from Canada so Canadians. IBM belongs to the Chinese now right? So, the productions of IMB's factories in Canada will count into

    our GDP growth. However, it will not be counted towards the Chinese GDP growth. Then, it will be counted into the Chinese GNP growth  meaning that the locations of the assets are important. But, with GDP it is not important.

    Therefore GNP= GDP+ (assets aboard)-(income earned by foreign countries)

  4. Historians just like to be that bit different

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