Question:

Why is it that i have great eyesight on one eye and the other im considered blind by law??

by  |  earlier

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blind because the doc. told me...but still

i can see well with both...although i do feel my bad eye weak sometimes... is this normal?

most of my friends or people i know have both eyes bad but maybe one eye is worse then the other..

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  1. When you write "blind by law," it suggests a possible diagnosis of ARMD (age-related macular degeneration).  This is the number one cause of legal blindness in the USA with diabetes second.  Commonly, with ARMD, it is only the central or macular vision needed to read or watch TV that is damaged, usually by bleeds in the macula.  Much of this is genetic.  Often there is good peripheral vision in the damaged eye so only central vision is lost.  One eye may be damaged years before the other.  You should get in to see a physician who specializes in the retina (back) of the eye - a retinal ophthalmologist.  New treatments are available if ARMD is your diagnosis which could save you from rapidly progressing damage to both eyes.   But early treatment is very, very important,  Good luck.  Don't postpone.  Call your nearest hospital or medical society for the name of a retina specialist.  This disorder usually affects people past 50 years of age.


  2. Some people have and issue with one eye and not the other.

  3. There are many causes of impaired vision.  You will have to ask your doctor why your eye has poor vision.  It is neither "normal" nor "abnormal" to have one eye worse than the other, it is what it is.

    Most legally blind eyes have some vision, very few blind eyes see nothing.

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