Question:

Why is it that when a man openly expresses his desire for someone, he is manly?

by  |  earlier

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But when a woman does the same thing, she is considered desperate?

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  1. It seems to be the job of the woman to subtly let a man know she's interested in him, and the man to then follow up on her interest.

    I guess the woman is only considered desperate if she let's the man know she's interested and he's not. Otherwise she's confident and powerful.

    I guess the man is only considered a stalker if he makes "undesired advances" on a woman. Otherwise he's manly when he reads a woman's desire correctly.

    Some of this is a little different in Mediteranian cultures and Machismo cultures than the more feminine Nordic cultures.


  2. because it is not often that men do that

  3. it's how you do it  

  4. That's not true , at all.

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