Given that the first Elizabeth (Henry VIII's daughter) was queen of England only, and the United Kingdom did not exist at the time, shouldn't the current queen be called 'Elizabeth I', rather than "Elizabeth II'?
This would follow the precedent set in naming 'James I' and 'James II' - there had been kings of Scotland named 'James' prior to the Union of the Crowns. Following the 'Elizabeth' method, they should have been entitled 'James VI' and 'James VII', I believe.
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