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Why must reason be an end in itself for Kant? Why must freedom be a priori to Kant?

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Why must reason be an end in itself for Kant? Why must freedom be a priori to Kant?

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  1. As far as I'm aware, Kant could offer no logical reason as to *why* reason should be considered an end in itself.

    Nietzsche took the stance that Kant didn't "discover" man's faculty for a priori synthetic judgments, as he had claimed, but instead invented them because he wanted them to exist.

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