I just bought a home in Michigan that was foreclosed. I have since found out that the previous owners bought this property in late 2006 in the amount of $175,000. At some point the property, appraised over $200,000 while in their possession. During this time I can clearly see they have made a few updates before going into default. November 2007 the mortgage lender foreclosed and it was sold at Sheriff's Auction to another bank for $113,000 and that bank then went through court proceedures to evict the owners by March 2008. In this time frame, the home owner completely destroyed the home by:
[ ] removing all fixtures: (toilet, sinks, lights, outlets)
[ ] cutting all the electrical wiring in numerous places (and just left the wire hanging),
[ ] destroyed the garage area and broke rafters,
[ ] taking down all the mini blinds to threw them on the garage floor,
[ ] ripped the door k***s from the doors (completely destroying the doors)
[ ] then threw the door k***s on the floor,
[ ] ripping out the baseboard heaters leaving gaping holes in the floors and walls,
[ ] sawed off all the copper plumbing, tearing out drywall to get to it.
The bank that won the auction ended up listing the home for a jaw dropping $33,000! Mr. AngryHomeOwner went through an awful lot of hard work to throw this temper tantrum after paying $175,000 just the year before and my questions are this:
IS THERE ANY ADVANTAGE WHATSOEVER for this type of temper tantrum on the house owner in default was about to vacate? Obviously he needed to vent some frustration but does he GAIN anything from this type of behavior? Obviously the bank will now get a fraction of what they paid at auction at a massive $80,000 loss from just a few months ago. Who does this financially hurt? Him or the bank? Can this guy be held financially responsible for his destruction to the now bank owned property he was living in? Does the rightful owner, the bank, have a right to go after this guy for thier loss? Or does the bank just chalk this up to a "bad investment" and the home owner gets away with this vandalism free and clear? If this is the case why would a bank (or anyone) bid on a foreclosed home at auction with this type of considerable risk?
Can anyone help me understand when the ramifications of this type of behavior would be? What would keep everyone from gutting their own homes when faced with eviction from foreclosure?
I know there are several question here to be answered but I'm at a complete loss as to why someone would do this and at what cost they face for doing such a thing....
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