Question:

Would any plz explain this for me?

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how could happen that the finno-uralic branch has no relationship with no other European branches,as we know every single language belongs to a specific branch and then the latter belongs to a large family where many other branched gathered

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  1. I'm not sure if this will be of any help, but maybe you can check it out. Once you get the picture, you can click at the bottom, right corner to enlarge. Good luck.

    http://jonathan.beaton.name/wp-content/u...

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