(~pV~q) → r, ~ (pΛq) → r?

Question

I have to use De Morgan's laws to determine whether 2 statements are equivalent. I think the solution is:

Not equivalent because the truth table doesn't match up to the statement.

I don't know if I am wrong or not because this is confusing with the ~ being on the inside of the first statement and it being on the outside of the second statement. Can anyone show me how to work it out?

Answer 1

I  think the answer is equivalent because i am sure that (`p V`q) is equal to `(p ^ q)

Answer 2

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/De_Morgan's...

what you have written is de morgan's law so it is true.  

1) (not p or not q) implies r

2) not (p and q) implies r

not p or not q) = not(p and q) implies r

or just draw ven diagrams the first one boils down to the intersection of p and q not being included in r, the 2nd one is more obvious and the same.