-ra vs. -se endings in Spanish subjunctive?

Question

To any native speakers or experts in the Spanish language- I was wondering, what's the difference between the -ra and -se endings in the imperfect subjunctive tense? I've seen and heard both of them used all the time, but I was wondering- is there a stylistic difference between them? Or any kind of preference depending on the country? I already know how to use both forms correctly- I'm pretty much fluent in the language- but I've always wondered if there's a difference between the two. Thanks in advance!

Answer 1

I don't understand and I'm mexican

Answer 2

They are equivalents. Indeed, I use both forms when talking (well, I have noticed some prefference towards -ra endings).

There is just one difference.

-se ending (cambiase, muriese, pudiese, etc) are only subjunctive.

-ra ending (cambiara, muriera, pudiera, etc) are subjuntive, but are used too as conditional.

Some people use the subjunctive form "Yo cantara" instead of the conditional form "Yo cantaría". There is nothing wrong in this use. Even the Spanish Royal Academy has accepted this custom.